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KatyA
Sunday, 5. April 2009, 14:22
Now that is news to me. I always understood a Duke outranked a prince - which is why Prince Phillip was given the title Duke of Edinburgh
One lives and learns.
Prince Philip married HM QE II on 20 November 1947.

He was originally a royal prince of Greece and Denmark, but renounced these titles before marriage and was known (briefly) as a commoner, Lieutenant Philip Mountbatten.

The day before the wedding Philip was was granted the 'style' (note a 'style' is a mode of address and not a formal title) of 'His Royal Highness' by King George VI - an interesting case of a commoner with a royal 'style'!

On the wedding day Philip was made Duke of Edinburgh (however the Dukedom is actually taken from the date of 'creation' of this peerage, the date he was formally enrobed as a Duke, in 1948). This was needed to stop Princess Elizabeth marrying a commoner - if a Prince (or Princess) was lower than a Duke then Philip would have been created a Prince to stop him outranking Princess Elizabeth!

In the general order of precedence, Philip immediately follows the Queen only because this precedence was assigned to him by a royal warrant in 1952 - granted by HM QE II before her coronation.

Prior to that royal warrant he had the precidence of the last dukedom and technically Philip would have been outranked by Prince Charles from his birth in 1948 (Charles holds the title of British Royal Prince by right of Blood - but even that was only possible after George VI changed the requirements for this 2 weeks before Charles was born) - however this was academic because, as a minor, Prince Charles would have had no formal duties and therefore would not have stood in any formal line of precedence.

HM QE II only made Philip a Prince of the United Kingdom in 1957.
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